要求(图是盗来的QAQ)
首先用欧拉定理把幂模一下,直接就是MOD-1了
然后发现MOD-1可以分解为2,3,4679,35617,都是质数,可以直接用Lucas定理
然后用中国剩余定理合并一下即可
千万不可把MOD和MOD-1搞混了,否则调试好麻烦的
#include<cstdio>
#include<cstdlib>
#include<algorithm>
#include<cstring>
#include<vector>
#include<cmath>
#define MAXN 35617+10
#define ll long long
#define pb push_back
#define ft first
#define sc second
#define mp make_pair
using namespace std;
ll c[],m[]={,,,,};
ll MOD=;
ll N,G;
ll inv[MAXN],finv[MAXN],fac[MAXN];
ll Pow(ll a,ll b,ll p){
ll ret=1LL;
while(b){
if(b&){
(ret*=a)%=p;
}
(a*=a)%=p;
b>>=;
}
return ret;
}
ll Inv(ll x,ll p){
return Pow(x,p-,p);
}
ll C(ll n,ll m,ll p){
if(n<m)return 0LL;
return fac[n]*finv[m]*finv[n-m]%p;
}
ll Lucas(ll n,ll m,ll p){
if(!m)return 1LL;
if(n>=p||m>=p){
ll nn=n%p,mm=m%p;
if(nn<mm)return 0LL;
return Lucas(n/p,m/p,p)*C(nn,mm,p)%p;
}
else{
return C(n,m,p);
}
}
ll solve(ll p){
fac[]=fac[]=;
finv[]=finv[]=;
inv[]=;
for(int i=;i<p;i++){
fac[i]=fac[i-]*i%p;
inv[i]=p-(inv[p%i]*(p/i)%p);
finv[i]=finv[i-]*inv[i]%p;
}
ll t=sqrt(1.0*N);
ll ret=0LL;
for(ll i=;i<=t;i++){
if(N%i==){
ret+=Lucas(N,i,p);
if(N/i!=i){
ret+=Lucas(N,N/i,p);
}
}
}
return ret;
}
ll CRT(){
ll M=MOD-;
ll ret=0LL;
for(int i=;i<=;i++){
ll t=Inv(M/m[i],m[i])%M*(M/m[i])%M;
ret+=t*c[i]%M;
ret%=M;
}
return ret;
}
int main()
{
scanf("%lld%lld",&N,&G);
if(G%MOD==){
printf("0\n");
return ;
}
for(int i=;i<=;i++) c[i]=solve(m[i]);
ll x=CRT();
ll ans=Pow(G,x,MOD);
printf("%lld\n",ans);
}